Exam questionKROK 2Medicine ยท 2010
A 27-year-old patient with malaria caused by P. falciparum was treated with Chloroquine (600 mg base followed by 300 mg base in 6 hours, then 300 mg base a day for 2 days) without clinical and parasitologic responses to the treatment. What is the most likely reason for the failure to respond to the therapy?
Answer options
- Inappropriate route of administration
- Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency in patient
- Chloroquine resistant strain of P. falciparum
- Late recognition of infection due to P. falciparum
- Hypersensitivity of the patient to Chloroquine
Correct answer
Chloroquine resistant strain of P. falciparum
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