HomeKROK Question Archive
Exam questionKROK 2Medicine · 2013

A 22-year-old patient complains of amenorrhea for 8 months. Menarche occured at the age of 12,5. Since the age of 18 the patient has a history of irregular menstruation. The patient is nulligravi-da. The mammary glands are developed properly, nipples discharge drops of milk when pressed. Gynecological study results: prolactin level is 2 times higher than normal. CT reveals a bulky formation with a diameter of 4 mm in the region of sella. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Answer options

  1. Pituitary tumour
  2. Pituitary basophilia
  3. Stein-Leventhal syndrome
  4. Sheehan’s syndrome
  5. Lactational amenorrhea
Correct answer

Pituitary tumour

Explanation

Normally, the pituitary gland serves as the master gland because the hormones it produces control so many different processes in the body.It senses the body's needs and sends signals to different organs and glands throughout the body to regulate their function and maintain an appropriate environment.

This educational archive is provided by KROKEXAM and is not an official testing authority publication.