Exam questionKROK 2Medicine · 2017
A 22-year-old woman complains of amenorrhea for 8 months. Anamnesis states that menarche occured at the age of 12,5. Since the age of 18 the patient has a history of irregular menstruation. The patient is nulli-gravida. The mammary glands are developed properly, nipples discharge drops of milk when pressed. Hormone test: prolactin level is 2 times higher than normal. CT reveals a bulky formation with diameter of 4 mm in the region of sella. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer options
- Cushing’s disease
- Pituitary tumour
- Stein-Leventhal syndrome (polycystic ovary syndrome)
- Sheehan’s syndrome (postpartum hypopituitarism)
- Lactational amenorrhea
Correct answer
Pituitary tumour
Explanation
Normally, the pituitary gland serves as the master gland because the hormones it produces control so many different processes in the body.It senses the body's needs and sends signals to different organs and glands throughout the body to regulate their function and maintain an appropriate environment.
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