A 34-year-old man on the 3rd day of ceftriaxone treatment for acute otitis (daily dosage – 2 grams) developed diarrhea occurring 5-6 times per day. Feces are without mucus or blood admixtures. Temperature is 36.6°C. Gregersen reaction (occult blood in feces) is negative. Stool culture detected no pathogenic germs. What is the most likely cause of diarrhea in this case?

Answer options

1. Bacterial overgrowth syndrome
2. Antibiotic-associated diarrhea
3. Ulcerative colitis
4. Crohn’s disease (regional enteritis)
5. Intestinal dysbiosis

Explanation

A 34-year-old man on the 3rd day of ceftriaxone treatment for acute otitis (daily dosage – 2 grams) developed diarrhea occurring 5-6 times per day. Feces are without mucus or blood admixtures. Temperature is 36.6C. Gregersen reaction (occult blood in feces) is negative. Stool culture detected no pathogenic germs. What is the most likely cause of diarrhea in this case?