Exam questionKROK 2Medicine ยท 2025
A 30-year-old woman complains of no menstruations occurring over the last year. She has history of a massive postpartum hemorrhage. Objectively, her secondary sex organs are normally developed, the hair growth pattern is of the female type. Bimanual examination detects normal uterus and uterine appendages. What is a possible cause of amenorrhea in this case?
Answer options
- Ovarian insufficiency
- Thyroid disorder
- Adrenocortical necrosis
- Hypothalamic insufficiency
- Pituitary necrosis
Correct answer
Pituitary necrosis
This educational archive is provided by KROKEXAM and is not an official testing authority publication.